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- Aug 2, 2011
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The Quran asserts that:The Biblical God As a Deceiver
You won't hear enough of Christian missionaries arguing that the Qur'an describes Allah as plotting and deceiving (refer here).
So I think it is only fair if we return them the favor and show how the God of the Bible is a deceiver, thus by the Christian missionary criteria the Biblical God is an immoral God and should not be worshipped.
We read in...
Jeremiah 4:10
Then I said, "Ah, Sovereign LORD, how completely you have deceived (nasha) this people and Jerusalem by saying, 'You will have peace,' when the sword is at our throats."
The word for deceived here is nasha, which means...
1) to beguile, deceive
a) (Niphal) to be beguiled
b) (Hiphil) to beguile, deceive
c) (Qal) utterly (infinitive)
Source: http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/5/1144094423-2544.html
John Gill states in his commentary...
surely thou hast greatly deceived this people and Jerusalem:
what the false prophets did, that God is said to do, because he suffered them to deceive the people; (John Gill, The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible, Commentary on Jeremiah 4:10, Source)
The New Bible commentary states...
Jeremiah is not indifferent to the message, which he is called to preach. In v 10 a note is struck to which he will return in relation to himself (15:18). In his distress he accuses the Lord of having deceived the people, presumably by having allowed false prophets to convince them with a message of peace (cf. 6:13-14). The only reply is the Lord's own confirmation that judgment is sure. (New Bible Commentary)
Even though it was really the false prophets who did the act of deception, the Bible is actually shifting the blame to God for actually allowing the false prophets to do the deception. This is what the "inspired" author Jeremiah said and this is what we got to accept. God deceived innocent people.
It seemed that people were so bothered with Jeremiah's ascription of deception to God that they had to reword the sentence so that deception is ascribed to the false prophets instead.
Ah, Lord God! surely thou hast greatly deceived this people
The Targum paraphrases this verse thus: "And I said, Receive my supplication, O Lord God; for, behold, the false prophets deceive this people and the inhabitants of Jerusalem, saying, Ye shall have peace." The prophet could not reconcile this devastation of the country with the promises already made; and he appears to ask the question, Hast thou not then deceived this people in saying there shall be peace, i.e., prosperity? (Adam Clarke, The Adam Clarke Commentary, Commentary on Jeremiah 4:10, Source)
We have it in...
1 Kings 22:20-22
20 And the LORD said, 'Who will entice Ahab into attacking Ramoth Gilead and going to his death there?'
"One suggested this, and another that. 21 Finally, a spirit came forward, stood before the LORD and said, 'I will entice him.'
22 " 'By what means?' the LORD asked.
" 'I will go out and be a lying spirit in the mouths of all his prophets,' he said.
" 'You will succeed in enticing him,' said the LORD. 'Go and do it.'
Here we see that the man said that he would resort to lying in order to entice Ahab and God supported the idea and told him to go ahead and do it!
I personally have no moral objections to this since I believe God could at times use means of deception in order to ensure the greater good and to use deception against evil. However, Christians don't allow this when we talk about Allah deceiving evildoers in the Qur'an. These are double standards.
We even have it in...
Ezekiel 14:9-11
9 " 'And if the prophet is enticed to utter a prophecy, I the LORD have enticed that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him and destroy him from among my people Israel. 10 They will bear their guilt-the prophet will be as guilty as the one who consults him. 11 Then the people of Israel will no longer stray from me, nor will they defile themselves anymore with all their sins. They will be my people, and I will be their God, declares the Sovereign LORD.' "
God is punishing him for a crime that He enticed him to do in the first place? Isn't that entrapment?
Another passage...
Isaiah 37:6-7
Isaiah said to them, "Tell your master, 'This is what the LORD says: Do not be afraid of what you have heard-those words with which the underlings of the king of Assyria have blasphemed me. Listen! I am going to put a spirit in him so that when he hears a certain report, he will return to his own country, and there I will have him cut down with the sword.' "
God had that spirit spread a rumor so that the King of Assyria can to return to his homeland. In short, that spirit's purpose was for deception.
Another example from the Bible...
Isaiah 19:14
The LORD has poured into them a spirit of dizziness; they make Egypt stagger in all that she does, as a drunkard staggers around in his vomit.
Here we see God deceiving people to the extent that they become absolutely foolish.
Even though I don't believe the Gospels teach that Jesus taught he was God, however this example is for those who believe that Jesus is God. Jesus admits that he was speaking figuratively all this time...
John 16:25
25"Though I have been speaking figuratively (paroimia), a time is coming when I will no longer use this kind of language but will tell you plainly about my Father.
The word paroimia could mean...
1) a saying out of the usual course or deviating from the usual manner of speaking
a) a current or trite saying, a proverb
2) any dark saying which shadows forth some didactic truth
a) esp. a symbolic or figurative saying
b) speech or discourse in which a thing is illustrated by the use of similes and comparisons
c) an allegory
1) extended and elaborate metaphor
Source: http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/3/1146511128-5176.html
Why wasn't Jesus speaking in a normal and clear way all the time? Why did Jesus then go and say that he won't 'use this kind of language'?
Well, here we find out why...
Mark 4:10-12
10When he was alone, the Twelve and the others around him asked him about the parables. 11He told them, "The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables 12so that," 'they may be ever seeing but never perceiving, and ever hearing but never understanding; otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!'
So here we see that Jesus was deceiving certain people by speaking in parables so that they won't (and God forbid!) REPENT AND BE FORGIVEN!
Also in...
2 Thessalonians 2:11
11For this reason God sends them a powerful delusion so that they will believe the lie
So God will delude people so that they can believe lies?
Now Christians would argue back and ask us Muslims to understand the context and reasons why God did such a thing. However, when we tell Christians to do the same thing when it comes to analyzing certain Qur'anic verses they don't want to do it. So why should us Muslims?
1.Jesus was not created like other humans, and
2. He exhibited the traits, or characteristics, of Gods.
CRUSIFIXION
And consider the way Jesus was crucified, or appeared to have been crucified.
Allah deliberately created a man who looked EXACTLY like Jesus. The Quran asserts that it was that look-alike man who was caught and killed on the cross
(2).The Christians BELIEVED THEIR EYES when they saw a man, who looked exactly like Jesus, being crucified.
Q.What did Allah expect them to do in those circumstances?
Doing Fingerprint analysis or DNA testing?
Why blaming the Christians for believing what they can see with their eyes?
The look-alike man was never seen in town before, so it was ONLY COMMON SENSE to assume that he was Jesus.
I do not see the Christians committed any mistakes at all, I would have done the same.
Allah deliberately deceived them by such a well planned trick. The trick worked on them so well, just as planned, so why punish them?
Was Jesus Human?
According to the Quran, he wasn’t like any human. The Quran says clearly that Jesus had a human mother but kept the details about his father discretely tucked away.
This reminds us with the cowardly behavior of Arab men when they have children outside marriage. Instead of coming forward to take their responsibilities, they turn their backs and leave it all to the mothers.
Let us read what the Quran says about Jesus’ father:
Quran .21:91. “And the one who guarded her vagina, so We blew into her through Our angel…”
Quran.66:12. “And Maryam, the daughter of Imran, who guarded her vagina and we breathed into it something from our soul…”
(Note: The word vagina is the proper translation for the Arabic word “farjaha” used by the Quran. Most translations use the word chastity, which I call deceptive translation)
In other verses ( 3,4) the Quran tells us that Mary needed some privacy, so she went to a distant and secluded place to the East ( why the East? please see note 5) to be away from her people.
A handsome man suddenly appeared in front of her. She must have been scared to death as she did all she could to be on her own, still that man appeared from nowhere.
Mary was a virgin and was never with a man before. That man was Gabriel who explained to her that he was there to make her pregnant, which he did! It turned out that, unlike humans, Angels do things differently. Gabriel actually used his mouth and breathed some ‘SPECIAL AIR’ containing “something of Allah’s seeds or ROOH” (Arabic for soul), into Mary’s private part. Indeed, Mary became pregnant! The verse makes it clear that the ‘air’, which Gabriel breathed into Mary, carried something of Allah’s (not the angel’s) own rooh (soul).
We can only conclude that Jesus’ chromosomes came partly from Mary and partly from that air containing some of Allah’s soul. The Quranic description doesn’t leave much room for speculations; Jesus’ father was God, which is not very different from what the Christians’ believe.
Muslim scholars reject this conclusion on the basis that the Quran, in other verses, categorically denies that Allah had children. The basis of the Quranic logic is how can He have a son if he didn’t have a wife? (6).
Well, the Muslim scholars have the choice to accept that Jesus is the son of God or accept that the Quran has contradictions and not divine.
Also, it is not fair that He withheld the ‘true answers’ for six hundreds years before revealing them, not to the Christians, but to the Muslims.
When I think of the Quranic story about Jesus, I cannot help but remember that verse in Surat Al Imran where Allah described himself as the best of deceivers, a claim he repeated in Surat Al Anfal:
Quran 3:54 “…and Allah is the best of deceivers”.
Quran. 8:30 “…and Allah is the best of
Refer:
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1) Quran. 5:110 “when Allah will say, “O Jesus, Son of Mary, remember My favor upon you and upon your mother when I supported you with the Pure Spirit and you spoke to the people in the cradle and in maturity; and when I taught you writing and wisdom and the Torah and the Gospel; and when you designed from clay like the form of a bird with My permission, then you breathed into it, and it became a bird with My permission; and you healed the blind and the leper with My permission; and when you brought forth the dead with My permission; and when I restrained the Children of Israel from you when you came to them with clear proofs and those who disbelieved among them said, ‘This is not but obvious magic’.”
2) Quran 4:157: And their saying, “Indeed, we have killed the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the messenger of Allah.” And they did not kill him, nor did they crucify him; but was made to resemble him to them. And indeed, those who differ over it are in doubt about it. They have no knowledge of it except the following of assumption. And they did not kill him, for certain.
3) Quran 19:17: And she took, in seclusion from them, a screen. Then We sent to her Our Angel, and he represented himself to her as a well-proportioned man.
4) Quran 19:16: “And mention, [O Muhammad], in the Book [the story of] Mary, when she withdrew from her family to a place toward the east.”
5) Sura Maryam, is one of the best rhymed chapters in the Quran, if not the best. All verses from the beginning up to 74 have the same pleasant rhyme like the word shar-qy-ia. The rest of the chapter has a different, but equally good, rhyme. Of course, the Arabic word sharqyia (to the East) is irrelevant to the meaning of the verse because we do not know the place anyway. However, it is very important to keep the rhyme. The author did not want to spoil the rhyme for the sake of a logical perfection, so he inserted the word sharqyia at the end of the verse.
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